Are D.C. Citizens the only Residents in this Country not being Represented?

While this post is not entirely on topic with our debate this Thursday, I still thought it was an interesting thing to think about: the voting rights of non-citizen residents. As a former member of this group, I know that despite having absolutely no vote in mayoral, congressional, presidential, or any other type of governmental vote, permanent residents who are not American citizens are taxed just as much as citizens, and some more depending on income. This is a different situation than what D.C. citizens have for a few reasons. D.C. citizens can vote for their own officials, as well as in the Presidential election, due to the 23rd Amendment, passed in 1961. Really the only way D.C. citizens are not represented is in the Congress, which of course is a huge part of the American Government, but still would only give them maybe two out of what would be 437 seats in the house and 2 out what would be 102 seats in the Senate. D.C. citizens are obviously being treated worse than any other citizens in this country but note that I use the word "citizen" and not "person in this country" or "resident in this country." 

I have heard people argue that if you live in New York or any other state, then you are represented by your Senators and your congressman or woman, but I would like to pose the question, if you did not vote in the election, do you really have a say, and if you do not have a say, are you really represented? Sure a McCain supporter is still represented by President Obama even thought he/she did not vote for the eventual winner, but the fact is that he/she has a vote and had an influence in who won, no matter how small it was. Isn't this influence what we pay taxes for? Do we not pay taxes so that we can have a say in how our government is run and how our money is spent? If I remember right, the American Revolution started at the most basic level, because England was taxing the Americans without the Americans having a direct vote how their hard earned money was being spent across the pond. When an immigrant comes to this country (legally of course), this immigrant must wait two years before applying for and receiving a Green Card, which then allows this immigrant to apply for citizenship.......five years later. For those of you keeping count at home, that's seven full years of all government taxes, (local, state, and federal) with a total of zero votes (local, state, and federal). Does this sound fair? 

I can understand the argument that immigrants should not be able to vote until they have a solid grasp about this country and how it works, but does it really take seven years (it takes only 5 in Canada) and should an immigrant be paying for rights he/she does not receive? I know nothing will change (especially considering immigrants cannot vote for a change), but I would still like to pose this question just as food for thought and because it is kinda relevant for this week.